Questions and Answers related to anything Islamic

[Cyborg]

[Cyborg]

Q: If I am praying in a jamat do I have to recite surah-e-Fateha?

Answer: Surah-e-Fatah is a fard in salat. (namaz). There are 3 different views;
1st view and this is the prevalent view of Hanafiya, Since Imam is reciting it followers r not required to recite.
2nd view says every one have to recite it in all raakaats.
3rd view n the one that I follow states, that In the rakaats where Imam recites loudly, like jumma prayers followers just have to listen. In the rakaats like last rakaat of maghrib prayer where Imam recite it silently, followers should recite surah-e-Fateha.

[Yorker_316]

Do we have to say Amen loudly? is it a sunat or a farz?

[Cyborg]

There r 2 school of thoughts for Ameen. Most Hanafi dun say ameen loudly where as Shafai and other school of tot say saying ameen loudly is mustahib. Both ways r proven through sunnah, saying ameen is obligatory. To say it loudly or silently is mustahib (preferable). It is totally upto u how u wana do it. Both ways r mustahib and dun effect ur prayer. The issue is which was most done by prophet, Hanafi believes silently and others belive louldy, pick one whatever u choose is right.

[Cyborg]

Qts:

Could you please answer my question: Should a Muslim obey the laws of a non-Muslim country while living there? My friend told me that we do not have to obey them, as we have not made an explicit agreement. Please provide evidence.

Answer:
Dear brother in Islam, we commend your pursuit of knowledge and your eagerness to seek what is lawful and avoid what is not. We earnestly implore Allah to bless your efforts in this honorable way.

First of all, it is well known that as long as one lives in a certain country as a citizen or a legal resident, he or she certainly must abide by the laws of that country. This fact needs no proof, as by having citizenship, a residence permit or a visa, one agrees to abide by the laws of the country.

While abiding by the laws of the country of residence, a Muslim must try his best to comply with the rulings of Shari`ah whenever possible and be eager not to be liable to those laws that contradict the clear-cut Islamic rulings agreed upon by all Islamic juristic schools. However, when a non-Muslim law agrees with the ruling of at least one school, then there is no harm if a Muslim abides by such a law.
Sheikh Muhammad Al-Hanooti, member of the North American Fiqh Council, states:

"We have to abide by the law of the place where we live. We are not committed to obey any law contradictory to Islam. You cannot live in a society without complying with its rules and laws. You will be forced to follow those laws. If you want to disobey the laws of that society, you will make yourself liable to penalties and punishments. That liability is against Islam."

Shedding more light on the issue, Sheikh Faisal Mawlawi, Deputy Chairman of the European Council for Fatwa and Research, states:

"First of all, I would like to correct the question, which should be formulated as this: Is it permissible for Muslims living in the West to obey the laws that are contradictory to Islam? Muslims are obliged to abide by the Islamic laws. However, does their living in the West and submission to its laws allow them to contradict the Shari`ah rulings?

In fact there are two types of positive or man-made laws:

Firstly, there are personal laws concerning which it is up to the individual to comply with or not. In this realm of laws, it is by no means permissible for the Muslim to do anything that contradicts the Islamic rulings and laws such as those that prohibit drinking alcohol, eating pork, committing zina (fornication or adultery), or taking riba (interest). Even though the Western laws permit such things, it is absolutely not permissible for the Muslim to do any of them.

Secondly, there are the laws that regulate the life of and the relations within the society, such as the laws regarding dealings between the Muslim and all other people in the society or those laws regulating the relations between the rulers and the ruled, etc. In this respect, a Muslim is obliged to abide by such laws when he is liable to any of them. For instance, when one wants to sell something, he is to abide by the law of selling; when he is to establish a firm then he is to abide by the laws governing these dealings. Here, we cannot give a general fatwa, as these laws can be in absolute contradiction with the Islamic laws or they can also be contradictory according to one school of fiqh while they are in conformity with the rulings of another school. Sometimes they may belong to matters upon which there is no ruling at all.

To conclude, a Muslim must try his best to abide by the rulings of Shari`ah whenever possible as much as he can. He should not allow himself/herself to be liable to those Western laws that contradict the clear-cut Islamic rulings agreed upon by all Islamic juristic schools. However, when the Western law agrees with the ruling of at least one school, then there is no harm if a Muslim abides by such law."


You can also read:

Can a Muslim Reside Permanently in a Non-Muslim Country?

Duties of Muslims Living in the West

[Cyborg]

Qts:
From the viewpoint of Islam, is it OK to buy something (a laptop, for example) that you know was stolen?

Answer:
In Islam, stealing is a major sin for which Allah has enjoined a prescribed punishment. Muslims should be a good example of trustworthiness, honoring agreements, and good character. Muslims should never buy a stolen property when knowing that it is stolen. It is not the right of the seller or the buyer to dispose of or make a deal regarding a stolen item knowingly.

In his response to your question, Dr. Monzer Kahf, a prominent economist and counselor, states the following:
A stolen item remains under the ownership of its true owner. This means that the seller has no right to sell and the buyer can't, knowingly, buy a stolen item, because he or she is buying a thing not from its true owner. It is prohibited to do either of these actions.
Besides, the true owner has full and undisputed right to take his or her property from any hand possessing it, without any compensation (in fact, even with a potentiality of charging the stealer of a criminal act), regardless of whether the person from whom the item is taken had paid for it or not and regardless of whether the latter knew it was stolen or not.
If the holder of a stolen item innocently paid for it, he or she may resort to a legal action against the recipient of his or her money, but certainly not against the true owner. By the way, the same is also in common laws in virtually all countries to the best of my knowledge.

Also, Sheikh Ahmad Kutty, a senior lecturer and Islamic scholar at the Islamic Institute of Toronto, Ontario, Canada, adds,

If you have a reasonable ground to suspect that the notebook you are buying is stolen, then you must never buy it. If, having known this, you were still to buy the same, then you are definitely condoning stealing and robbery. May Allah help us to be instruments of virtue and piety and locks to evil and corruption. Amen.

[junaid368]

Question: In Islam, is it ok to celebrate eid-miladun nabi? lets see how you answer this....

[Cyborg]

Originally Posted by junaid368

Question: In Islam, is it ok to celebrate eid-miladun nabi? lets see how you answer this....

A detailed answer is provided here:
http://www.lovelypk.com/islam-forum/...an-hadith.html

I strongly believe as IlBIDAH FI DALALAH, Bidaa'th will lead u astray. Prophet had 63 yreas to celebrate he didn't, Sahaba had all their lives and they didn't, Tabaeen had all the chances in da world and they didn't even taba-tabaeen didn't do it. It was started by Abbassi Caliph and is a bidaat in its current form and thus shouldn't be celebrate.
Now if one want to celebrate it by fasting, and reciting quran and trying to extra charity or extra remembrance than its not bad. But to spend money calling a holiday and basically shutting down everything and demanding that we celebrate it like its a fard is bidaa'T and its wrong.

[junaid368]

wow didnt expect you to say that, anyway good job and thankx

Next question: What do you say to people who say that Muhammad s.w.a.s. was noor and not a human? How do you feel when people say that?

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Last edited by junaid368; 08-08-2007 at 07:32 PM.

[Cyborg]

[quote=junaid368;87958]wow didnt expect you to say that, anyway good job and thankx

Next question: What do you say to people who say that Muhammad s.w.a.s. was noor and not a human? How do you feel when people say that?[/quote]

1st of all plz accept my apologies i didn't even see the qts. so now lemme answer it.
The rule is Quran is the 1st source, 2nd i Sunnah, 3rd Ijma.
Al - Quran stated several times in several places that Mohammad Pbuh is a human being just like others, Paraphsraing ayaat below
O ye Prophet! say unto them I am nothing but a human being like you except that I recieve wahi.
We have send you a prophet from your own
etc etc
Logic demands that a human be send as a prophet to teach us the way, cuz he would do it himself and then we have no excuse. If the prophet was a noor then there are only 2 things made of noor, ALLAH SWT & angels. Since we all know surah-e-qul (qul ho wallaho ahad...) Prophet if noor has to be angel. If he has an angel Quran then tell us that angel r robots they r programmed to do such such thing and all thier lives thats wat they do, i.e watever they are programmed to do they can never make mistakes they have no free will and thus can't do sin. If Prophet is an angel thus deprived of free will how is it fair of ALLAH to demand from us to do what prophet does, after he didn't have free will and we do? Solely on logic u wil reject that. People who say that Prophet was a noor r committing shirk, as the whole concept is his noor is that of ALLAH (the creator) not the noor of Angels(the creation).
May ALLAH guide us toward right path and ALLAH surely knows best.

[Cyborg]

Q : Joining Maghrib and Isha Earliest time? Aslamualaikum! As Isha prayer starts very late these days .I want to know if I can pray maghrib and Isha together or what is the earliest time for Isha .Because if I fall asleep before Isha there are chances to miss it .please answer my question asap jazakalla

Answer: This is a very common question at this time of year, where Fajr is early, and Isha is late. We know that Prophet Mohammad peace be upon him joined prayers once, without him being on a journey, and it was not raining, to give the permission for the Ummah, under certain circumstances to do so if necessary. For example: If a doctor is performing an operation, or an air traffic controller is on duty, and they cannot leave their post, other wise lives will be lost. But it’s not to be used without a valid reason, or a necessity as mentioned above. Making sure that we understand it’s not a Sunnah, or the norm, but the exception. Regarding your second concern about the earliest time to perform Isha, there are differences of opinions. One-opinion states, one hour after Maghrib, because of the utterance stating the time between Maghrib and Isha, is the time it takes to slaughter and distribute the meat of a camel. (Wallahu A’alam) And Allah knows best.

[nihu]

Question:
Is it permissible to pray wearing shoes when necessary, or not?

Answer:

Praise be to Allaah.

Yes, that is permissible, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) prayed wearing his shoes. In al-Saheeh it is narrated that Abu Sa’eed said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) lead us in prayer whilst he was wearing his shoes, then he took them off [whilst still praying], and the people took their shoes off too. When the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said the Tasleem [at the end of the prayer], they said: “O Messenger of Allaah, you took off your shoes, so we took off our shoes too.” He said: “Jibreel came to me and told me that there was some dirt on them, so I took them off. When any one of you comes to the mosque, let him look at his shoes, and if he sees any dirt on them, let him wipe them. And they can be purified with dust.”

(Narrated by Abu Dawood, no. 650). The point here is that praying in shoes is permissible. It says in the hadeeth: “Be different from the Jews, pray wearing your slippers or shoes.” (Narrated by Abu Dawood, no. 652). But the condition is that the shoes must be taahir (pure, clean). If there is any najaasah (impurity) or dirt on the shoes, then one should not pray wearing them or enter the mosque in shoes, unless he is sure that they are free of impurity or dirt. And Allaah knows best.


Fataawa Samaahat al-Shaykh ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Humayd, p. 93

[Cyborg]

u can put all qts and answer in open qts answer thread that I started. Thread moved and thanks for sharing